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then d is given by simple math, d=(gt^2)/2, where d=acceleration and t=time taken for the particle to cover distance d. Or we can express g as g=2d/t^2. We then relate this g to the magnetic force between two, moving, charge particles. Suppose that they are moving in a circle. This magnetic force is given by F=mg=2md/t^2=uq^2r/dt^2. Where q=charge, u=magnetic permitivity in 'vacuum'. The columbic force is given by F=q^2/2eprd, where p=pie, e=electric permiability in 'vacume'. Now rewrite the columb force to make q^2 the subject of the formula and then subtitute it in the equation for magnetic force. Remembering that 1/ue=c^2, we have pFr=mc^2. For very tiny, infinitesimal orbit of radius r, together with infinitesimal distance d, we can suppos that that 2pFr=Fd=E
The reasoning imply some simplifying assumtions but I think it is enough to help you get a feel
Things changes when a significant portion of aether moves or vibrate coherently. A force begines to act on the individual 'gas' molecules, bringing them closer together, increasing their density. This is called z-pinch. Lets suppose that the total mass of an electron is proportional to the number of aetheric particles (far smaller ones) traped within a sphere of a radius that we may term it as the 'charge radius' of the electron. My argument is that if we understand this force that traps the electron sub-particles as z-pinch, then the resultant potential energy that the electron will pocess is precisely given by E=MC^2!!